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An engineer is using a network sniffer to troubleshoot DHCPv6 between a router and hosts on the
LAN with the following configuration:

Interface Ethernet0
Ipv6 dhcp server DHCPSERVERPOOL rapid-commit

Which two DHCPv6 messages will appear in the snifer logs?

A.    reply
B.    request
C.    advertise
D.    acknowledge
E.     solicit
F.     accept

Answer: AE
The Rapid Commit option is used to indicate the use of the two- message exchange for address assignment. The code for the Rapid Commit option is 80. The format of the option is:
Code Len
| 80 | 0 |
A client MUST include this option in a DHCPDISCOVER message if the client is prepared to perform the DHCPDISCOVER-DHCPACK message exchange described earlier.
A server MUST include this option in a DHCPACK message sent in a response to a DHCPDISCOVER message when completing the DHCPDISCOVER- message exchange.

Drag and Drop Question




Drag and Drop Question




Drag and Drop Question




Drag and Drop Question




Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop the challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol steps from the left into the correct order in which they occur on the right.




Which BGP option is required when load sharing over multiple equal-bandwidth parallel links from a single CE router to a single ISP router over eBGP? Select the best response.

A.    eBGP Multipath
B.    eBGP Multihop
C.    BGP Synchronization
D.    Public AS numbers

Answer: B

Which statement is true about EBGP? Select the best response.

A.    An internal routing protocol can be used to reach an EBGP neighbor.
B.    The next hop does not change when BGP updates are exchanged between EBGP neighbors.
C.    A static route can be used to form an adjacency between neighbors.
D.    EBGP requires a full mesh.

Answer: C
When BGP is running between routers in different autonomous systems, it is called External BGP (EBGP). When BGP is running between routers in the same AS, it is called Internal BGP (IBGP). BGP allows the path that packets take to be manipulated by the AS, as described in this module. It is important to understand how BGP works to avoid creating problems for your AS as a result of running BGP.

Which two statements are true of the OSPF link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    Using the Bellman-Ford algorithm, each OSPF router independently calculates its best paths to all
destinations in the network.
B.    Using the DUAL algorithm, each OSPF router independently calculates its best paths to all destinations
in the network.
C.    OSPF sends summaries of individual link-state entries every 30 minutes to ensure LSDB synchronization.
D.    OSPF sends triggered updates when a network change occurs.
E.     OSPF sends updates every 10 seconds.
F.    When a link changes state, the router that detected the change creates a link-state advertisement (LSA)
and propagates it to all OSPF devices using the multicast address.

Answer: CD
The point of this question is the basis of OSPF.
Incorrect answer A. OSPF send hello packets every 10 seconds, not the updates, OSPF sends triggered updates when a network change occurs. For OSPF, D Rother use the multicast address to send packets to DR and BDR, only DR and BDR can get the information from this multicast address.

Your network consists of a large hub-and-spoke Frame Relay network with a CIR of 56 kb/s for each spoke.
Which statement about the selection of a dynamic protocol is true? Select the best response.

A.    EIGRP would be appropriate if LMI type ANSI is NOT used.
B.    EIGRP would be appropriate, because the Frame Relay spokes could be segmented into their
own areas.
C.    EIGRP would be appropriate, because by default, queries are not propagated across the slow
speed Frame Relay links.
D.    EIGRP would be appropriate, because you can manage how much bandwidth is consumed over
the Frame Relay interface.

Answer: D
By default, EIGRP will limit itself to using no more than 50% of the interface bandwidth.
The primary benefit of controlling EIGRP’s bandwidth usage is to avoid losing EIGRP packets, which could occur when EIGRP generates data faster than the interface line can absorb it. This is of particular benefit on Frame Relay networks, where the access interface bandwidth and the PVC capacity may be very different.

Refer to exhibit. What is indicated by the show ip cef command for an address?


A.    CEF is unable to get routing information for this route.
B.    CEF cannot switch packet for this route and passes it to the next best switching method.
C.    A valid entry and is pointed to hardware based forwarding.
D.    CEF cannot switch packet for this route and drops it.

Answer: B
Glean adjacency ­ in short when the router is directly connected to hosts the FIB table on the router will maintain a prefix for the subnet rather than for the individual host prefix. This subnet prefix points to a GLEAN adjacency. Punt adjacency ­ When packets to a destination prefix can’t be CEF Switched, or the feature is not supported in the CEF Switching path, the router will then use the next slower switching mechanism configured on the router.

Refer to Exhibit. Which two reasons for IP SLA tracking failure are likely true? (Choose Two)


A.    The source-interface is configured incorrectly.
B.    The destination must be for icmp-echo.
C.    A route back to the R1 LAN network is missing in R2.
D.    The default route has wrong next hop IP address.
E.    The threshold value is wrong.

Answer: AC

A network engineer enables OSPF on a Frame Relay WAN connection to various remote sites, but no OSPF adjacencies come up.
Which two actions are possible solutions for this issue? (Choose Two)

A.    Change the network type to point-to-multipoint under WAN interface.
B.    Enable virtual links.
C.    Change the network type to nonbroadcast multipoint access.
D.    Configure the neighbor command under OSPF process for each remote site.
E.    Ensure that the OSPF process number matches among all remote sites

Answer: AD

A network engineer applies the command ip tcp adjust-mss <bytes> under interface configuration mode. What is the result?

A.    The probability of SYN packet truncation is increased.
B.    The UDP session is inversely affected.
C.    The probability of dropped or segmented TCP packets is decreased.
D.    The optimum MTU value for the interface is set.

Answer: C

Which command configures a PPPoE client and specifies dial-on-demand routing functionality?

A.    pppoe-client dial-pool-number
B.    PPPoE enable.
C.    interface dialer 1
D.    encapsulation PPP

Answer: A

Which statement about dual stack is true?

A.    Dual stack translates IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
B.    Dual stack means that devices are able to run IPv4 and IPv6 in parallel.
C.    Dual stack translates IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses.
D.    Dual stack changes the IP addresses on hosts from IPv4 to IPv6 automatically.

Answer: B

Which two OSPF network types can operate without a DR/BDR relationship? (Choose Two)

A.    Point-to-multipoint
B.    Point-to-point
C.    nonbroadcast
D.    nonbroadcast multi-access
E.    broadcast

Answer: AB

In a point-to-multipoint Frame Relay topology, which two methods ensure that all routing updates are received by all EIGRP routers within the Frame Relay network? (Choose Two)

A.    Use statically defined EIGRP neighbors on the hub site.
B.    Create separate address families.
C.    Disable split horizon.
D.    Use subinterfaces.
E.    Disable EIGRP auto summary.

Answer: CD

What following parameters for the EIGRP authentication need to match in order for EIGRP neighbors to establish a neighbor relationship?

A.    Autonomous System number.
B.    K-Values
C.    If authentication is used both: the key number, the password, and the date/time.
D.    The neighbors must be on common subnet (all IGPs follow this rule).

Answer: C

A network engineer recently deployed Easy Virtual Networking in the enterprise network.
Which feature improves shared services support?

A.    route replication
B.    edge interfacing
C.    tunnel feedback.
D.    route distinguishers

Answer: A

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